If a man divorces his wife before consummation of the marriage, she becomes haraam for all of his offspring

Question

Praise be to Allah.

No, if a man
divorces a woman, she becomes haraam for all of his sons, the sons of his
sons, and the sons of his daughters, because she was the wife of the
father, even if he did not consummate the marriage with her, and Allah has
not connected this matter to consummation of the marriage. Allah, may He
be glorified and exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And
marry not women whom your fathers married”
[an-Nisa’ 4:22].

Marriage to their
fathers’ ex-wives is haraam for sons in all cases. “Father” in this case
refers to the immediate father as well as the grandfather, i.e., the
father’s father or the mother’s father. It includes all forefathers on the
mother’s side and on the father’s side. Their (ex-) wives are haraam for the
son to marry and he is a mahram to them because of the verse (interpretation
of the meaning): “And
marry not women whom your fathers married”
[an-Nisa’ 4:22].
This includes the one with whom the marriage was consummated and the one
with whom it was not consummated. This is a matter concerning which there is
consensus among the scholars and there is no difference of opinion
concerning it.

The converse is
also true: The son’s wife is also haraam for father to marry in all cases,
even if the son did not consummate the marriage with her. If a man marries a
woman then dies before consummating the marriage with her, or he divorces
her before consummating the marriage with her, she is haraam for his father
and all of his grandfathers, because Allah says (interpretation of the
meaning) “the
wives of your sons who (spring) from your own loins”
[an-Nisa’ 4:23];
He did not say those with whom you have consummated the marriage. End
quote.

Shaykh ‘Abd
al-‘Azeez ibn Baaz (may Allah have mercy on him).